Aviation Resource Management Journeyman Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is typically a key outcome of effectively assigning training profiles?
• Which subcategory of qualification training provides the training necessary to qualify an aircrew member to perform the command or unit mission?
• Under what condition can suspension action be exercised at the commander's discretion?
• The "jump type" categorization helps record what aspect of the jump?
• What is the minimum number of hours of uninterrupted sleep required for crew rest?
• What is one requirement for maintaining operational support flier status?
• How many flight hours are required for a member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month?
• What is the significance of the 12 Oct 08 date in relation to the member's flying duties?
• In which AFI can you find mandatory remarks for publishing aeronautical orders?
• Which form documents the qualification status of aircrew members?
• What happens if a free fall parachutist does not jump within the required time frame?
• What is one of the critical factors that must be considered when using calculations in queries?
• Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) contains the list of availability codes?
• Can a single aeronautical order (AO) affect multiple members?
• What is the minimum number of jumps in a 12-month period that qualifies a parachutist for hazardous duty incentive pay if they experience a break in jumps?
• You can tailor an individual training task for the purpose of which of the following EXCEPT:
• In aeronautical orders, the termination date for enlisted parachutists should not be based on which date?
• What is required to confirm the accuracy of aircrew qualifications and jump records?
• Which AFI requires the development of a continuity book by the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office?
• When auditing a flight record folder, in what order should aeronautical orders be filed?
• Where does funding for manpower resources originate?
• In air operations, what does CAS stand for?
• Which act first established minimum OFDA months for rated officers to receive continuous ACIP?
• Which form serves as the official flight evaluation record in the Air Force?
• A pilot-physician formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for which advanced rating?
• Who is responsible for completing certain blocks on the AFTO Form 781?
• When documenting errors on the Training Update Audit List, how should you correct an error?
• What is the primary purpose of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• Who is responsible for completing the AF Form 4324 when assigning training profiles?
• After finishing assigning training profiles to an aircrew member, what should you use to audit the transactions?
• Which scheduling plan includes aircrew names and aircraft tail numbers?
• Locally developed training requirements will have task IDs beginning with which letter?
• What happens to a member's flying incentive pay while they are under suspension?
• What does the first character of the aviation service code (ASC) represent?
• What document must be completed to apply for the parachutist badge?
• What action must be taken by HARM if a member starts flying duties after being initially assigned to flying duty?
• When deployed, where must all original flight documentation be sent?
• Which part of the aviation management suspense list displays aircrew members not performing an OFDA-creditable flight for three months?
• Which document outlines the task prioritization for ground scheduling?
• What is the primary purpose of air interdiction (AI) missions?
• How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
• What Air Force form is utilized for requesting system changes to ARMS?
• What is the ultimate goal of a community of practice?
• What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order when it is based on a letter?
• What is the primary purpose of the Air Force's flight physical health assessment (PHA)?
• How must social security numbers (SSN) be treated within the Department of Defense?
• If a military pay order action is to stop a member's pay, when will the pay termination date occur?
• Which default option allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your "Most Recently Used List?"
• What is a potential consequence if a member does not obtain medical certification for requalification?
• What purpose does a flying activity code (FAC) serve?
• What document contains a chronological history of a member's aircrew evaluations?
• What important deadline does the MAJCOM set related to unit man-month requests?
• Which type of mission involves both strategic and tactical operations involving air power?
• What is one of the main considerations when forecasting air refueling requirements?
• Which of the following best describes a training profile in ARMS?
• In ARMS, which of the following aspects is crucial for maintaining compliance?
• A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is a(an)?
• What happens to a member's aviation service code (ASC) when they are no longer assigned to an authorized jump position?
• When does the effective date for assigning Aviation Service Code 06 occur if a member fails to complete the US Army Basic Airborne Course?
• Why is it necessary to validate a query when using calculations?
• A parachutist performed a static line jump and a HALO jump in May. What type of pay will the member receive for May?
• Which outprocessing procedure is not a responsibility of the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office?
• Which role is primarily focused on overseeing jump training and operations within an organization?
• What is the purpose of the aeronautical order in aviation resource management?
• What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) for a member assigned an ASC based on their formal flying training start date?
• Which of the following is not a responsibility of Current Operations?
• What is the key distinction of the "For Official Use Only" (FOUO) designation?
• What is the minimum notification period before involuntary termination of aviation service for dual-coded flying/jumping members?
• Which of the following is true regarding aircrew duties for dual-coded positions when required for the mission?
• When must the Host Aviation Resource Management office conduct a cover to cover audit of the jump record folder?
• As a ground scheduler, what is your primary responsibility?
• What should you do if changes are made to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining HARM office?
• You may prorate the following training tasks EXCEPT:
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
• How many certified copies of the entitlement verification report must the host aviation resource management office maintain?
• What is the purpose of the AF Form 942?
• What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
• What must be produced before making adjustments to a member's flying hour totals?
• What are the three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities?
• What is the required action regarding flight record folders for members disqualified for eight years or more?
• Which type of mission provides air interdiction (AI) and close air support (CAS)?
• What is indicated by a member exceeding the 180-day limit in DNIF status?
• Members in dual-coded flying/jumping parachutist roles are mostly assigned to positions identified by which prefix?
• What action will HQ USAF/A3O-AT take if the CHARMS transfer file is not received during a system interface?
• Within how many days must the host HARM office process a flight record folder upon receipt?
• What functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling training sorties?
• What denotes the service status for aviation personnel in their records?
• What document allows tracking of individual flight pay entitlements?
• Who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the Privacy Act within the aviation resource management field?
• Why must all entries in the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 be made in pencil?
• After completing a flight physical health assessment (PHA), how soon must the flight surgeon send a copy of the AF IMT 1042 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office?
• During which event would an aircrew member be automatically placed in DNIF status?
• What is the primary purpose of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• What does a "T" in the Jump Type option indicate when updating jump accomplishments?
• To make changes to an AFTO Form 781 already submitted, whom must the pilot in command contact?
• What should be done with verifiable records after they are processed by the gaining HARM office?
• What does validation of a query help prevent during data retrieval?
• Which pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)?
• When does the three-month grace period begin for a member in conditional pay status injured on November 12?
• Which functional area oversees the operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• Which statement must be included in the Remarks section for members in dual-coded positions?
• When assigning training profiles, what section of the AF Form 4324 should be particularly checked for accuracy?
• What does banked time consist of?
• What date format should be used when updating flying hours in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• When can non-rated officers begin wearing the officer aircrew member badge?
• What is emphasized as a critical component of aircrew training documentation in ARMS?
• Who is designated as the supervisor of flying (SOF)?
• In operations security, what does "physical environment" refer to?
• Which aviation service code signifies that a jump requirement has been terminated?
• Who is responsible for completing and certifying all AF Forms 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records and AF IMTs 922, Individual Jump Records?
• Who ensures the correctness of details on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record?
• Members can be recommended for prohibition of wearing the parachutist badge due to what action?
• If a member has a medical disqualification of less than one year, how can they obtain requalification?
• Who holds the authority to authorize temporary jump status?
• Which menu does NOT belong to the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• How does a pilot's flying status code impact their operational readiness?
• When outprocessing a parachutist, what must be included in the jump record package?
• Following centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
• What is required when auditing the Aircraft Utilization Report (AUR)?
• Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is recognized as jump inherent?
• Which statement about training requirements is true in the context of ARMS?
• Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?
• What is the pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator who was placed on active flying on January 1, 2009, and then placed in DNIF status on April 13, 2009?
• Under which circumstance must a member’s flying status code be reevaluated?
• Who must certify the AF IMT 1522, ARMS Additional Training Accomplishment Report, when conducted by an outside agency?
• What type of information is typically found in flight record folders (FRF)?
• Which form is used to track static line and HALO jump incentive pay?
• Before recommending a trainee for the next skill level, what must they be fully trained on?
• What is one purpose of the jump record folder?
• What documentation is necessary for processing an aeronautical order?
• What is the purpose of a flight record folder (FRF) audit?
• How many days can a parachutist be suspended without major command approval?
• What defines a community of practice?
• Who is accountable for the accuracy and management of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?
• To apply for the award of a parachutist badge, which form must be completed?
• What is the consequence for violating the Privacy Act?
• When a pilot completes UPT on 27 Sep and signs in to the operational flying unit on 20 Jan, what is the effective date of the aeronautical order?
• Under what condition may a commander recommend prohibiting the wear of the aviation badge?
• Who is authorized to log primary flight time on a medical evacuation mission?
• What must happen if a member's duty code on the flight authorization does not match the AFTO Form 781?
• What is the significance of the remarks on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record?
• What effective date should be used when changing a pilot's flying status code from "U" to "X" following graduation on 25 May?
• How can an Air Reserve Component member satisfy both active and inactive duty requirements in the same month?
• Where would you find the specialty training standard that lists common tasks for the 1C0X2 career field?
• How is information regarding aircraft mishaps treated?
• Which flight time is not included in a member's total time as per the flying history report (FHR)?
• What standard folder serves as a repository for all approved documents pertaining to a member's jump career?
• What action should be taken in the Aviation Resource Management System once a member becomes HALO certified?
• Within how many days must a supervisor conduct an evaluation of a trainee's qualifications?
• What must members do to apply for the award of a parachutist badge?
• When is it appropriate to recommend a trainee for additional skill levels?
• What document is used to audit transactions in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• Which of the following must NOT be included when forecasting air refueling requirements?
• What percentage of the annual sortie requirements are flight surgeons required to perform in their primary aircraft?
• When is the aviation service date (ASD) adjustment mandatory for members?
• What is the preferred method of documenting corrections on the Training Update Audit List?
• What is the primary method to evaluate a trainee's knowledge of a task?
• By what date must the MAJCOM receive the unit's man-month request?
• What is the first step in creating a training program in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
• Who is primarily responsible for managing flight records and maintaining their accuracy?
• Which department is likely to oversee the completion of training profiles such as AF Form 4324?
• How many columns is the specialty training standard (STS) divided into?
• Which characters of the flight authorization duty code are MAJCOM specific?
• Which code is used to identify the member’s flying status?
• How is the termination date for aeronautical orders determined for parachutists?
• When are licensed physicians considered effective in aviation service as flight surgeons?
• Which block on the AFTO Form 781 is NOT the responsibility of the maintenance crew chief?
• To update a member's physiological information in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you should use which window?
• What term is used when several applications are bundled together?
• How many days does a free fall parachutist have to perform a jump to remain current?
• Which approach is essential when dealing with multiple query documents?
• Which form tracks the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?
• Which date is fundamental for calculating the officer service date (OSD) in the USAF?
• The aircrew qualification evaluation is due every how many months?
• What is the role of a Database Administrator in the context of ARMS?
• When assigning dual-credit criteria in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the type of credit given may include what?
• What does the AF Form 4324 primarily relate to?
• What does a periodic review of the jump record folder ensure?
• To be eligible for aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), what must a rated officer have?
• Operational support fliers are fully qualified in which of the following?
• Members in inactive status are required to complete which of the following?